To: P-Marlowe; nobdysfool
I do not think it is possible for God not to have known who would believe. Either omniscience is eternal with God or there is a period in which God was not God.
358 posted on
08/03/2005 5:30:15 AM PDT by
xzins
(Retired Army Chaplain and Proud of It!)
To: P-Marlowe; jude24; Buggman; Frumanchu; nobdysfool; blue-duncan; ksen; Alamo-Girl
When did God NOT know that which was/would be written in the Bible?
360 posted on
08/03/2005 5:37:19 AM PDT by
xzins
(Retired Army Chaplain and Proud of It!)
To: xzins; P-Marlowe; nobdysfool
I do not think it is possible for God not to have known who would believe. Either omniscience is eternal with God or there is a period in which God was not God. God's actions and decisions would then also have to be co-existent with that knowledge, meaning that God's knowledge of who would believe could be in the context of His efficaciously bringing it about (as in the Reformed view).
370 posted on
08/03/2005 5:59:12 AM PDT by
Frumanchu
(Saved by grace alone through faith alone in Christ alone to the glory of God alone.)
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