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To: Campion
The Immaculate Conception belongs to Jesus Christ...and to Jesus Christ ONLY. To move it back to make some statement about Mary as having already the means by which to bring God as Man into the world perverts the entire Message that Christ brought to the world. It implies that Mary did NOT have free will, and it was my understanding growing up that was what redeemed womankind. Eve had the free will to turn away from Satan, and did not. Mary had the free will to say no to God, and did not. The rest is history.

I am speaking towards Marionology, which has been making inroads within the RCC. It is the RCC's job to articulate what they mean by Marionology, not those who have chosen to reject it.

18 posted on 08/01/2005 10:51:03 AM PDT by Alkhin (Ask me about Usborne Books!)
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To: Alkhin
The Immaculate Conception belongs to Jesus Christ...and to Jesus Christ ONLY.

You didn't define what you mean by the term, or rather, what you think we mean by the term, though.

(Actually, I'd almost say that the IC doesn't apply to Jesus at all, because saying that a Divine Person is conceived free from original sin and fully graced is tautological -- there's no other kind of Divine Person -- but that's an aside.)

To move it back to make some statement about Mary as having already the means by which to bring God as Man into the world

Huh?

It implies that Mary did NOT have free will

Huh? If the IC implies that Mary did not have free will, then Eve's creation in the garden also implies she didn't have free will, either.

Mary had the free will to say no to God, and did not.

Thanks, we're in complete agreement. Why do you think we aren't?

It is the RCC's job to articulate what they mean by Marionology, not those who have chosen to reject it.

If you can't define what you're rejecting, how do you know what it is?

Gotta get back to work. It's not clear to me that you really know what Catholics believe, though.

19 posted on 08/01/2005 11:14:16 AM PDT by Campion (Truth is not determined by a majority vote -- Pope Benedict XVI)
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To: Alkhin; Pyro7480; NYer; Campion
It implies that Mary did NOT have free will, and it was my understanding growing up that was what redeemed womankind. Eve had the free will to turn away from Satan, and did not. Mary had the free will to say no to God, and did not.

No, my dear, absolutely the opposite is true. The Immaculate Conception of Mary means God created her from the moment of her Conception with that same condition which Eve enjoyed before the Fall. Thus, when Eve chooses evil she does so in supreme free will unencumbered by the Fall, and when Mary gives her Fiat (saying "Yes" to God) she does so in the self same supreme free will unencumbered by the effects of the Fall. Thus "two choices of womankind" are given within a like freedom, a free will, a being free from the effects of the Fall.

Now, how Our Lady came to receive this singular grace is a different subject, totally because of the Victory upon the Cross of Jesus Christ who was, and is, and is to come.

20 posted on 08/01/2005 11:18:05 AM PDT by Siobhan ("Whenever you come to save Rome, make all the noise you want." -- Pius XII)
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