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To: Buggman
That's like the joke about the guy who refused any version of the Bible other than the KJV because "if it was good enough for Peter and Paul, it's good enough for me."

That's not a joke.

687 posted on 07/05/2005 11:20:47 PM PDT by P-Marlowe (A preposition is something you should never end a sentence with.)
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To: P-Marlowe

You're kidding me.


690 posted on 07/06/2005 6:34:42 AM PDT by Buggman (Baruch ata Adonai Elohanu, Mehlech ha Olam, asher nathan lanu et derech ha y’shua b’Mashiach Yeshua.)
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To: P-Marlowe; Buggman; xzins; blue-duncan
That's not a joke.

I'm sure it's not.

But I've experienced exchanges with folks who have tried to deny that the NT was really written in Greek. I almost got the impression in dealing with these folks that they think God made some sort of mistake by not continuing to use Hebrew to complete His revelation to man. They were Hebrew snobs.

There is no denying that one cannot properly understand many portions of the NT without a knowledge of the OT, Hebrew culture, etc., esp. when it comes to the gospels. So in that sense the OT helps to interpret the NT. But revelation is still progressive. The NT completes what God intended to tell His people about the way of salvation. It is not complete by itself, but neither is it second class revelation. There is no "retrograde motion" in the NT. God doesn't need to go back, setting aside the NT to complete the Old.

Also, since most of the NT was written in Greek to a largely Greek-speaking audience, that language and culture cannot be ignored. The fact is God was not "speaking Hebrew" when He gave us the NT by His Holy Spirit-inspired authors. Although it's chic in some Christian circles to use transliterated Hebrew names for NT persons, that's not what we find in Scripture. Our theology is not a fashion statement. Paul, for the most part, was called "Paul" (Paulos). That's how he identified himself in his letters. He went by His Greek name when dealing with both Jews and gentiles.

I believe God deliberately and providentially used the Greek language to authenticate the message of the universality of the gospel. Jesus came into the world at just the right time and place. "But when the fullness of the time had come, God sent forth His Son, born of a woman, born under the law,"

Contrary to popular opinion, not all Jews spoke Hebrew or Aramaic. Just look at Acts 2. And the culture of Jews in Palestine was not identical with the culture of Jews in places like Tarsus or Corinth. The early church had to deal with the issue of racial/cultural division. From the episode on Acts 6 with the Greek-speaking vs. Hebrew-speaking Jews, to the Judaizers attempt to place non-Jews under the temporary prescriptions of the ceremonial law, that church worked hard to dispel all these divisions. "For there is no distinction between Jew and Greek, for the same Lord over all is rich to all who call upon Him." (Rom. 10:12)

Just studying Hebrew or the Jewish culture will not solve all the problems of Bible interpretation. In fact I would argue that in some cases an inordinate emphasis on Hebrew culture might make you miss the proper interpretation of a text.

"For through Him we both have access by one Spirit to the Father. Now, therefore, you are no longer strangers and foreigners, but fellow citizens with the saints and members of the household of God, having been built on the foundation of the apostles and prophets, Jesus Christ Himself being the chief corner stone, in whom the whole building, being joined together, grows into a holy temple in the Lord, in whom you also are being built together for a dwelling place of God in the Spirit." (Eph. 2)

It's a shame today that some folks, no doubt well-meaning, are once again raising these older distinctions as appropriate for today's body of Christ. What's even more amazing is the number of gentiles pushing these ideas. The Hebrew language is to them kinda what Latin is to the Roman Catholics, only a bit more magical.

695 posted on 07/06/2005 9:46:16 AM PDT by topcat54
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