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To: wagglebee; biblewonk
Mary is called "blessed" three times in the first chapter of Luke (by the angel Gabriel, by Elizabeth and by herself), in fact she is referred to as "blessed" AMONG women and we are told that henceforth ALL generations shall call her "blessed". Assuming you agree that the Bible does say this, I have a few questions:The word "blessed appears often in scripture and is not unique to Mary

Lets look at the text

Luk 1:26   And in the sixth month the angel Gabriel was sent from God unto a city of Galilee, named Nazareth,
Luk 1:27   To a virgin espoused to a man whose name was Joseph, of the house of David; and the virgin's name [was] Mary.
Luk 1:28   And the angel came in unto her, and said, Hail, [thou that art] highly favoured, the Lord [is] with thee: blessed [art] thou among women.
Luk 1:29   And when she saw [him], she was troubled at his saying, and cast in her mind what manner of salutation this should be.
Luk 1:30   And the angel said unto her, Fear not, Mary: for thou hast found favour with God.
Luk 1:31   And, behold, thou shalt conceive in thy womb, and bring forth a son, and shalt call his name JESUS.
Luk 1:32   He shall be great, and shall be called the Son of the Highest: and the Lord God shall give unto him the throne of his father David:
Luk 1:33   And he shall reign over the house of Jacob for ever; and of his kingdom there shall be no end.
Luk 1:34   Then said Mary unto the angel, How shall this be, seeing I know not a man?
Luk 1:35   And the angel answered and said unto her, The Holy Ghost shall come upon thee, and the power of the Highest shall overshadow thee: therefore also that holy thing which shall be born of thee shall be called the Son of God.

First notice that the angel said she was blessed.. that is not about her worth, but rather that God had blessed her . It was not about her or her worth, but rather what God had done to her ..He blessed her .

Blessed-eulogeo

1) to praise, celebrate with praises 2) to invoke blessings
3) to consecrate a thing with solemn prayers
a) to ask God's blessing on a thing
b) pray God to bless it to one's use
c) pronounce a consecratory blessing on
4) of God
a) to cause to prosper, to make happy, to bestow blessings on
b) favoured of God, blessed

Notice that the word is an action taken by God, not a statement of worth . The voice of the word being used is passive ..(5786 Voice - Passive The passive voice represents the subject as being the recipient of the action. E.g., in the sentence, "The boy was hit by the ball," the boy receives the action.)

Her being blessed by God does not "earn" her honor" The honor and praise should go to the one that blesses not the blessed

The presumption that Mary was born sinless is no where written. BUT if she was it born sinless and IF she lived a sinless life.. the glory for that must go not to the vessel, but the one that created it. Without an act of God she was just another Jewish girl. She has no worth within herself.


312 posted on 05/12/2005 8:41:52 AM PDT by RnMomof7
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To: RnMomof7
And she spake out with a loud voice, and said, Blessed art thou among women, and blessed is the fruit of thy womb.
Luke 1:42

The term "blessed" is used her to refer to both Mary and Christ, it is not distinguished one from another. God would not "bless" Christ as he is also God, therefore it has to mean something different. The word "blessed" her is an adjective that describes both the Mother and Christ.

314 posted on 05/12/2005 8:52:46 AM PDT by wagglebee ("We are ready for the greatest achievements in the history of freedom." -- President Bush, 1/20/05)
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To: RnMomof7; wagglebee; biblewonk
The same greek word used in Luke 1:28 about Mary is used also in:

So why isn't bread, fish, Abraham, Jacob, and the sons of Joseph given the same veneration as Mary?

315 posted on 05/12/2005 8:52:59 AM PDT by ksen ("He that knows nothing will believe anything." - Thomas Fuller)
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To: RnMomof7

"highly favoured" is a very bad translation of "kecharitomene", -- full of grace.

"Grace" appears in Luke 2:40, John 1:14, John 1:16, John 1:17 in the Gospels; each time the Greek original is "charis". What warranted the tortured "favoured" in Luke 1:28 of NIV we can only guess.


316 posted on 05/12/2005 8:55:33 AM PDT by annalex
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To: RnMomof7; Zuriel
Notice that the word is an action taken by God, not a statement of worth . The voice of the word being used is passive ..(5786 Voice - Passive The passive voice represents the subject as being the recipient of the action. E.g., in the sentence, "The boy was hit by the ball," the boy receives the action.)

Her being blessed by God does not "earn" her honor" The honor and praise should go to the one that blesses not the blessed

The presumption that Mary was born sinless is no where written. BUT if she was it born sinless and IF she lived a sinless life.. the glory for that must go not to the vessel, but the one that created it. Without an act of God she was just another Jewish girl. She has no worth within herself.

You should study Catholicism sometimes. Nothing you have said here is anything we would deny. You build up these false ideas about what we believe inside your head, and nothing we say can disabuse you of these notions.

We acknowledge Mary's role as God's Handiwork. We don't ascribe glory to Mary outside of her cooperating with God and being the recipient of God's graces.

Now, do you have anything to say about Zuriel's post and how his aversion to Mary and his faulty conceptions of Christ go together? Do you see how the Marian doctrines define Jesus?

SD

318 posted on 05/12/2005 9:01:08 AM PDT by SoothingDave
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