I will ask them again:
What exactly does a couple do when using NFP?
And, what exactly is the intention of the couple when using NFP?
If you don't know the answer to your rhetorical spin, you should resign. Or be removed.
And, what exactly is the intention of the couple when using NFP?
You're too fixated on the intention issue here. It is simply irrelevant (unfortunately the "open to life" language is liable to this misunderstanding):
It cannot be denied that in each case the married couple, for acceptable reasons, are both perfectly clear in their intention to avoid children and wish to make sure that none will result. (HV 16)
Paul VI is clear that there is absolutely nothing wrong with conjugal intercourse in which the couple has an "intention to avoid children" and a "wish to make sure that none will result", for that reason.
The key point of HV - and this is actually expressed more clearly in Casti Connubii - is that any action taken to intentionally rob or deprive the marital act of its fertility is intrinsically immoral. That is the sole reason why NFP and contraception are distinct. NFP does not deprive the act of fertility - instead, it refrains from the act when the "natural power to generate life" (to use the language of CC) exists, and only engages in the marital act when that natural power is naturally nonexistent, during the infertile periods.
That's a real distinction, isn't it, and one that your people can comprehend?