Was it? The old law could not justify, so David must have been justified, after his sin, under the New Law by the grace of Jesus Christ: so where's the difference?
***Was it? The old law could not justify, so David must have been justified, after his sin, under the New Law by the grace of Jesus Christ: so where's the difference?***
I'm not sure I understand what you're saying.
David was under the sacrifical system, eye for eye, that kind of stuff. He wasn't truly justified until Christ died and rose again. That old system was fully in effect fro David all his life. He was "under the Law".
By this the Holy Spirit indicates that the way into the holy places is not yet opened as long as the first section is still standing (which is symbolic for the present age). According to this arrangement, gifts and sacrifices are offered that cannot perfect the conscience of the worshiper, but deal only with food and drink and various washings, regulations for the body imposed until the time of reformation.
But when Christ appeared as a high priest of the good things that have come, then through the greater and more perfect tent (not made with hands, that is, not of this creation)
he entered once for all into the holy places, not by means of the blood of goats and calves but by means of his own blood, thus securing an eternal redemption. For if the sprinkling of defiled persons with the blood of goats and bulls and with the ashes of a heifer sanctifies for the purification of the flesh, how much more will the blood of Christ, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without blemish to God, purify our[ conscience from dead works to serve the living God.
Therefore he is the mediator of a new covenant, so that those who are called may receive the promised eternal inheritance, since a death has occurred that redeems them from the transgressions committed under the first covenant.
Heb 9