***Original Sin" is an Augustinian concept which, as Black Veil points out, is not and never has been accepted in the Eastern Church.***
How does the Eastern Church interpret the following...
"Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death through sin, and so death spread to all men because all sinned-- for sin indeed was in the world before the law was given, but sin is not counted where there is no law. Yet death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those whose sinning was not like the transgression of Adam, who was a type of the one who was to come."
- Romans 5
and...
"For as by a man came death, by a man has come also the resurrection of the dead. For as in Adam all die, so also in Christ shall all be made alive. "
- I Cor 15
In a nutshell, the first is that we have inherited a corrupted nature which leads to sin and death from Adam, but not any guilt from Adam's sin. Every man's sin is his own.
As for the second, let me quote from the Pascal Liturgy: "Christ has risen from the dead, by death trampling down death, and bestowing Life to those in the tombs!"
Any help?
The Orthodox simply do not define many doctrines which the Roman church does define. There is a vehement hatred of all things Roman by certain Orthodx, who are very well-represented on this site. Hence, if one doctrine can be associated with Roman speculation or post-schism doctrine, its antithesis is immediately put forth as Orthodox doctrine. Which is silly, of course, because the point is usually that the Orthodox do not so much oppose Roman teaching, but find the doctrines put forth by Rome to be unwarranted speculation.