"I would ask you to elaborate on this because it is not exactly clear to me how you came to that conclusion. What you are saying is that the wife departs from versus separated from somehow brings compassion into the first and not into the second?"
Well, at various points along this thread there has been discussion of the innocent/guilty spouse issue. What I am saying is that if the verb in question is active, it could imply that the wife has committed the sin, thus is in need of reconcilliation with the Church and this would be in accord with the Church's position on Divorce and re marriage. If the verb is passive, then the wife has been separated from her husband, something has acted upon her to make her leave...her husband's actions? Compassionate correction wouldn't be needed for an innocent spouse. Her sin? Then compassionate correction is in order? On the other hand, I may be reading more into this verb than is there, which is why I said the difference may, in this context, be insignificant.
I can't be the judge of that, but I can repeat what the Church is teaching, which is not necessarily semantic: the wife, even though she is innocent, is committing adultery by re-marrying (Mark 10:11-12). It is not what caused the separation, it is the fact that no one on earth has the authority to dissolve a marriage, and by remarrying one is engaging in adultery. The Church gives in to someone re-marrying out of pcompassion because it is better for them to be with someone then to fornicate (that is, if not being married is not an option).