Typological formulations are not exact. They are suggestive.
In any case, if we're in agreement about the Church being the bride of Christ, then I wonder which marriage is it, in which the bride *does not take the mother of her husband as her own*. The last words of Christ on the cross to St. John--significantly not named but called "the disciple whom Jesus loved"give Mary to that disciple.
If Jesus loves you, and I submit that He does, then it is to you that He gives His own mother. If you can't accept the more "advanced" Marian doctrines, that's one thing, but to refuse even the concept of Mary as your mother-in-law is to do violence to the very idea of the Bride of Christ.
***then it is to you that He gives His own mother.***
And I fully accept Mary in her Biblical role.
But it is a poor marraige that requires the mother-in-law as a mediator between the bride and the groom!
(Even John the Baptist had the sense to back off once he got the bride and groom together...
"The one who has the bride is the bridegroom. The friend of the bridegroom, who stands and hears him, rejoices greatly at the bridegroom's voice. Therefore this joy of mine is now complete. He must increase, but I must decrease." - John 3)