OK, thanks.
We should presume validity if proper matter and form is present. We should NOT if they are not. That's OK.
What is the effect of sacramental grace, if any, in the case that proper matter and form are used, but the priest INTERNALLY did not intend...with the Church?
IIRC with regard this question, M4629 found text which cast doubt on any 'sacramental grace' ....
Well, the person upon whom the invalid sacrament was conferred obviously wouldn't receive the Sacrament itself.
If he had a desire to receive it, I suppose he would receive the reality of the Sacrament, if it should be Baptism, Holy Communion, or Penance.