Incorrect. You are a very poor student not only of Scripture but of the history of the discipline of celibacy, lex continentiae, which finds its origins with the Apostles in the Catholic priesthood and with Melchisedech in the Levitical priesthood in the Old Testament. But that is to be expected when one, such as yourself, relies on an abridged, edited copy of Sacred Scripture that didn't exist until 12 centuries after the original as well as the private, erroneous interpretation that St. Peter cautioned against.
In St. Paul's counsel in 1 Timothy 3, there is no absolute qualification that a bishop must be married, despite your claim to the contrary.
"It behoveth therefore a bishop to be blameless, the husband of one wife, sober, prudent, of good behaviour, chaste, given to hospitality, a teacher," 1 Timothy 3:2
'ut quod apostoli docuerunt, et ipsa servavit antiquitas nos quoque custodiamus'
Apostles in the Catholic priesthood and with Melchisedech in the Levitical priesthood in the Old TestamentSince Peter was married, and the Levites were married, you are the one has failed to do the research.