Replies

I can tell that your ,so called studies on this subject have, 1.) either only been here in thr U.S., or under the
same "masonic controlled" system of theology.

Your assertion that "they" did not have a "good" Greek, as you put it,is firstly NOT true, as the KJV committee of 1604, had all the Words of God extant today. We have since that time found more "manuscripts" Yes, But NO NEW WORDING !!! This deceptive theological information that you refer to , is the same system that has lied to Christians about the origin of the Septuagint, as being written BEFORE Christ, which is another LIE.
If you choose to believe that, then be my guest, but do not post it here as if it is "Gospel".
The KJV panel did not rely on the Latin of Jerome, as they understood it to be part of the Eusebion corruption of 330 A.D., of which 50 copies were ordered by Emperor Constantine, and by Decree enforced as the only "Official" Bibles of the "Church". And all other "Dissenter"Bibles Outlawed.( this in fact, is what brought about the "Dark Ages" ) Until 1453, when the "Ottoman Empire" overran Greece, and Christians fled to France and Germany and the Netherlands, and flooded Europe with "common Greek" text,
which did not say the same thing, at all ,as did Jerome's Latin text. Then Martin Luther and the Wittenberg Cathedral etc,etc. ( I said I did not want to get into a drawn out discussion on this,) so let me close this by

explaining that the KJV panel used the common Greek text that "popped up" from Christians that fled the Ottoman Empire ( that is where Luther got his text as well) and the KJV diligently compared that with the several common Greek based texts, as the "Stephens" text and the "Waldenses" text .
If you choose to believe the misinformation out there , do as you please, "But for me and my House....."

You say you "understand" Mt. 13:24-43, and the you quote Ezek.18. I am not so sure, I am getting the feeling that you are trying to "Look educated", also I am having
"mixed feelings" about your "spiritual background". Would you care to share that with us ?
If, as you say , you understand this subject of Mt.13 , may I ask you , how long is this "gathering period" of the "Tares", "for to be burned" before the "harvest" of the "wheat"
Finally, I am still waiting for your reply , on who Killed Goliath ? and your posting the verse of 2.Sam.21:19 , for all of us to see.

Sorensen

You have judged me incorrectly. I have been overseas and I am not in some masonic system of theology. I use generally accepted texts such as Bromiley's Theological Dictionary of the New Testament, Fritz Rienecker and Cleon Rogers Linguistic Key to the Greek New Testament, Grudem's Systematic Theology, various commentaries including the Expositor's, various Zondervan and Libronix Bible programs for computers, various exhaustive Concordances for different versions with their lexicons, and Theological Wordbook of the Old Testament edited in part by a premier Hebrew scholar, Gleason L. Archer Jr.

Furthermore, I am not interested in getting into personal stories of spiritual background to say I'm better than you or visa versa. I have found when people cannot make an argument for a position in a discussion they typically shift the focus to the person rather than the subject at hand.

If you cannot discuss the language of the Bible, and present a view that is inline with the whole of the Bible in a systematic manner and maintain the integrity of the language through translation and so render a proper interpretation, I am not willing to go off on this tangent with you.

Likewise, I have answered your protest of the modern versions and have found it does not try to dupe anyone into believing anything other than what has been corrected in the KJV. This does not prove the superiority of the KJV since they are operating with the same source text error -they just added a correction in 2nd Samuel. If you want to excoriate the NIV, then you can prosecute your case. I want to talk about the Rapture.