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To: Sorensen
You said:
In Rev.14:14-20, you have two separate companies spoken of , and a distinction has to be made between them. This is why one needs to pay attention to Mt. 13:24-43, as it "sheds light", on the text in Rev.14.

I agree that Isaiah says the Root of Jesse, (Jesus) will gather the exiles of Israel (remembering we Gentiles are grafted into the tree of Israel) in Isaiah 11:12.

ISA 11:12 He will raise a banner for the nations
and gather the exiles of Israel;
he will assemble the scattered people of Judah
from the four quarters of the earth.

But Jesus also said He (the Son of Man) would send his angels out to gather the elect from the four winds in Matthew 24:31.

MT24:31And he will send his angels with a loud trumpet call, and they will gather his elect from the four winds, from one end of the heavens to the other.

Now how can this be? Is it one or the other?

Revelation 14:14-20 shows that Scripture is cannot be broken as Jesus Himself said. The Son of Man indeed initiates the Harvest, and then He commands His angels to complete the task.

First of all, the verb tense at Revelation 14:16 is not in the past tense as translated in our English versions. When you read and the earth was harvested as I have here in the NIV, the was is added to the text to aid in translation. harvested is in the aorist tense which means it is a summary occurrence, passive voice and indicative mood which may have the action occurring in the future, past or present. So we should not read the Jesus finishes the Harvest in verse 14:16. I think you have to look at the grapes in the second part as being the same grapes in the first, they are both to be gathered, not burnt from the text in Rev 14. This would qualify them both as being "wheat" from Jesus' parable of the wheat and tares in Matthew 13.

The question of the winepress in Revelation 14:19 is interesting. If Paul is correct that flesh and blood cannot inherit the Kingdom of Heaven, and this gathering is largely of souls, then what does God do with the bodies of the believers that still alive and are left that are gathered up?

111 posted on 05/20/2004 7:27:35 AM PDT by Teleosis
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To: Teleosis
Your opening reference to Mt.24:31, is moving away from the context of my discussion, as quoted Mt. 13:24-43 with
Rev.14.

Secondly, to answer your comment about the Greek, the answer is Yes and No,. The "Greek" you are referring to
here, does agree, I believe, with the "Byzantine", ( I am sitting in a public place on "their" computer, and have no "material" such as a Bible with me at this time, I apologize for that) However, your conclusion is incorrect.
If you will take a moment and read Mt. 13:24-43, in the KJV, you should be able to understand it.

Thirdly, you are reading the "wrong" Bible, now please bear with me for one moment. The NIV is based on two "surviving" (as in never used) Eusebio/Wescott/Hort
"Frauds",in the "Classical Greek", called "Vaticanus-B" and "Sianiticus-codex-Aleph". This is what we refer to as "corrupted text"
Let me ask you a question. Who killed Goliath ?
Please post your answer, as well as write out the passage in "your NIV" of 2Sam.212:19 . will you do that for me?
120 posted on 05/20/2004 9:16:18 AM PDT by Sorensen
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