To: dangus
I would add that when Jesus calls Mary "Woman," he is using the same play on words Genesis recorded: "Eve" meaning "Woman." However, Jesus did not use the phrase exclusively with respect to Mary. E.g.,
Then Jesus answered and said unto her, O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee even as thou wilt. And her daughter was made whole from that very hour. (Matt. 15:28)
John used the same construct for Jesus' conversation with the woman at the well.
Jesus saith unto her, Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father. (John 4:21)
And the woman taken in adultery.
When Jesus had lifted up himself, and saw none but the woman, he said unto her, Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee? (John 8:10)
Jesus spoke to Mary no differently than He spoke to Samaritans and adulterers. Your reference proves nothing, except that Jesus liked that phrase.
46 posted on
05/03/2004 1:34:20 PM PDT by
topcat54
To: topcat54
>> Your reference proves nothing, except that Jesus liked that phrase. <<
What makes it unusual is its usage. It's an odd thing to call your own mother "woman." But I'm not sure your counter-examples make your case very well. You say he used it for Samaritans and adulterers. Well, what did he say to them?
O woman, great is thy faith: be it unto thee as thou wilt.
Woman, believe me, the hour cometh, when ye shall neither in this mountain, nor yet at Jerusalem, worship the Father.
Woman, where are those thine accusers? hath no man condemned thee?... Then neither shall I.
Each of these restored the grace of God.
57 posted on
05/03/2004 2:05:36 PM PDT by
dangus
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