Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article

To: topcat54
Only according to RC theology. It ain't in the Bible. The same word is used in Eph. 1:6 to refer to all followers of Christ.

Incorrect. The words in Ephesians are thV caritoV autou - "the grace of Him" - meaning Jesus - believers are sanctified through HIS grace. The noun form is used.

The word in Luke 1:28 is kecaritwmenh - a very specific verb form (perfect/passive participle) that you can translate as "is and has been 'graced'." "Full of grace" does omit the passive aspect of the verb form indicating that the grace proceeds from God, but it's as close as we can get in English which doesn't have the precision of Greek.

The word appears nowhere else in the Bible. The Archangel did indeed give Mary a unique greeting for a unique person - the one who consented and was prepared to be the mother of God incarnate.

109 posted on 05/04/2004 8:03:50 AM PDT by AnAmericanMother (. . . Ministrix of Venery (recess appointment), TTGC Ladies' Auxiliary . . .)
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 51 | View Replies ]


To: AnAmericanMother
The word appears nowhere else in the Bible. The Archangel did indeed give Mary a unique greeting for a unique person - the one who consented and was prepared to be the mother of God incarnate.

Even admitting that the greeting was unique to Mary, it does not further require the leap to this grace being totally and completely coextensive with Mary's existence from womb to tomb.

The word does not mean nor imply sinlessness which is the typical RC analysis of the text. Nor does it imply that Mary was made perfect because of the grace of God bestowed on her. Such ideas come from one's theology, not from the text itself.

111 posted on 05/04/2004 8:32:17 AM PDT by topcat54
[ Post Reply | Private Reply | To 109 | View Replies ]

Free Republic
Browse · Search
Religion
Topics · Post Article


FreeRepublic, LLC, PO BOX 9771, FRESNO, CA 93794
FreeRepublic.com is powered by software copyright 2000-2008 John Robinson