To: The_Reader_David
That still doesn't compute.
Surely, the original error of the previous Pope had to be ex-cathedra as well, right?
Or, do we sweep all errors of Popes into the non-ex-cathedra category? Isn't that too convenient?
If infallibility is limited only to ex-cathedra, then why all the furor over Vatican II? Oh, is it because, ex-cathedra, that Pope changed a lot of things, that had been ex-cathedra before him? And thus, any change corrected an error or introduced an error, and thus, even ex-cathedra, some pope somewhere erred?
7 posted on
04/30/2004 7:45:26 AM PDT by
FactQuest
To: FactQuest; The_Reader_David
If infallibility is limited only to ex-cathedra, then why all the furor over Vatican II? Oh, is it because, ex-cathedra, that Pope changed a lot of things, that had been ex-cathedra before him? Vatican II didn't change any teachings of the Church.
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