Replies

You seem not to be listening. Arguing about specific actions is beside the point. The point is that the Law did not bring righteousness. That is what Paul says. You misread this entirely to try to turn it into an anti-Roman polemic.

The Old Testament Jews had Faith and Good Works.

Paul says that they were Justified by their Faith, and not by their Good Works.

'Nuff Said.

Is it a "good work" to refrain from pork products? Is it a "good work" to shun your wife during here menses? Is it a "good work" to sacrifice a turtledove upon your firstborn?

These were all Good Works to those whom they were given, for it is always a Good Work for a believer to practice the Law of God.

However, you'd have a hard time making the case that these Laws were ever given to Gentiles, or are still (after the Incarnation) binding on Jews.

However, when did "Love thy Neighbor" become irrelevant? It is a Good Work for Christians to practice this Law of God, is it not?

Christians follow the Spirit in doing good for their neighbors. Not the Law. It shouldn't take a Catholic to explain to you the difference between the Old and New Covenants. Really. Christians following the Spirit and doing "good things" are to be rewarded and such good things are necessary for our faith to be real and for our salvation. It has nothing to do with Galatians and the verse you wrench out of context. I'm beginning to believe you aren't pulling my leg. SD

When Christians do Good Works in the Spirit, they are practicing the Law of God: "Love thy Neighbor".
And when faithful Old Testament Jews practiced the Law of God in believing obedience to God, they were Following the Spirit.

Therefore, the Galatians passage is not wrenched out of context, for it has always been -- Old Testament and New -- a Good Work for the Faithful to practice the Law of God.

And, both Old Testament and New, it is their Faith which justifies, and NOT their Good Works. (Galatians 2:16)

Galatians 2:16 -- Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.

The Old Testament Jews had Faith and Good Works.

Paul says that they were Justified by their Faith, and not by their Good Works.

So you maintain that the phrase in this verse "works of the law" does not refer only to following the Old Covenant laws given at Sinai?

You consider when you "do good" to be "works of the law"?

When Christians do Good Works in the Spirit, they are practicing the Law of God: "Love thy Neighbor".

And this is what Paul is referring to in Gal 2:16? This is "the works of the law" that never justify us?

How do we make sense of the rest of the chapter, then, and the following chapter?

What is happening in chapter 2?

Paul is relating how he reprimanded Pope Peter for being a hypocrite and not eating with the Gentiles. There were those teaching the Gentiles that they had to follow the Law of Sinai in order to be Christians. So much so that Jewish Christians would not eat with Gentile ones because they did not follow the dietary laws.

14 But when I saw that they walked not uprightly according to the truth of the gospel, I said unto Peter before them all, If thou, being a Jew, livest after the manner of Gentiles, and not as do the Jews, why compellest thou the Gentiles to live as do the Jews?
15 We who are Jews by nature, and not sinners of the Gentiles,
16 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified.
17 But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid.
18 For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor.
19 For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God.
20 I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me.
21 I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.

Paul says he is dead to the law. And yet you would have us believe that Christians even today follow "the law of God" in doing good works. He clearly contrasts trying to follow "the law" with being able to "live unto God."

Therefore, the Galatians passage is not wrenched out of context, for it has always been -- Old Testament and New -- a Good Work for the Faithful to practice the Law of God.

Gal 3:
19 Wherefore then serveth the law? It was added because of transgressions, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made; and it was ordained by angels in the hand of a mediator.
21 Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could have given life, verily righteousness should have been by the law.
22 But the scripture hath concluded all under sin, that the promise by faith of Jesus Christ might be given to them that believe.
23 But before faith came, we were kept under the law, shut up unto the faith which should afterwards be revealed.
24 Wherefore the law was our schoolmaster to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith.

What is Paul talking about? some vague notion of a "law of God" that even now we try to follow in order to know good works?

Or is he clearly talking about the Law, capital L, given to the Isaelites at Sinai? And if that is what he means by "law" here, why should 2:16 be talking about somethign different?

And if Paul's gripe is that people were wanting to circumcise and make Gentiles follow the Jewish Law, why does that word mean somethign different in 2:16?