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To: 1stFreedom; Hermann the Cherusker
Dear 1stFreedom,

"I think it's wishful thinking on the part of the priest."

Perhaps. I'll try to see if I can dig up the reference.

I'll betcha Hermann could name it right off the top of his head.


sitetest
41 posted on 02/03/2004 8:53:33 AM PST by sitetest
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To: sitetest
I think one of the problems has to do with divorce given on the grounds of adultery. There is no "adultery" exception for divorce. At first you may think "but scripture says so" -- but further analysis proves that it doesn't:

Most scripture translations seem to give permission for divorce due to adultery, but that's a translation problem.

The Greek work Pornea, found in the scriptures, can be translated as adultery, fornication, and unchastity (incest). More often than not it is translated into "adultery." If there were an adultery exception to divorce in Scripture, then Jesus would be contradicting himself. See this FR post for more info on this issue.

The Church does not recognize divorce and cannot grant a divorce itself.

The Church recognizes that it does not have the power to dissolve a valid, consumated marriage between Christians.

On that note, the Church cannot recognize the Ecclesiastical Divorce of another "sister" {seperated brethren??} Church.

42 posted on 02/03/2004 9:07:16 AM PST by 1stFreedom
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To: sitetest
FYI,

Your posting ettique is quite impressive. :-)

1st
43 posted on 02/03/2004 9:20:59 AM PST by 1stFreedom
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