To: drstevej; Tantumergo; Catholicguy
Steve, as best as I can tell, the phrase translated "full of grace" in Luke 1:28 by the Catholics is
kecharitomene, a feminine perfect passive participle form of
charitoo. The only other time in the New Testament
charitoo is used is in Ephesians 1:6 as
echaritosen in the third person aorist indicative -- referring to the Father ("to the praise of the glory of His grace, which
He freely bestowed on us in the Beloved.") On the other hand, your Acts reference uses a different word,
pleres pisteos.
The fact that the same phrase used to describe Mary in Luke is used to describe all Christians in Eph. 1 is more interesting to me.
Tantumergo and CG, I'd like your inputs as well.
77 posted on
12/30/2003 4:55:32 PM PST by
jude24
("Facts are meaningless! You can use facts to prove anything thats even REMOTELY true!" -- H. Simpson)
To: jude24; Tantumergo; Catholicguy
Acts 6:8 Ste/fanoj de\ plhrhj xaritoj ... The term in 6:7 is pisteos, but in verse 8 it is charis
80 posted on
12/30/2003 5:03:39 PM PST by
drstevej
To: jude24
"The fact that the same phrase used to describe Mary in Luke is used to describe all Christians in Eph. 1 is more interesting to me."
In Jerome's Vulgate, the term in Eph 1,6 is also translated as graced:
"4 As he chose us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and unspotted in his sight in charity.
5 Who hath predestinated us unto the adoption of children through Jesus Christ unto himself: according to the purpose of his will:
6 Unto the praise of the glory of his grace, in which he hath graced us in his beloved son."
I think that in verse 4 you have the perfect scriptural description of those who have been "graced" in his beloved Son.
The doctrine of the Immaculate Conception simply affirms that Mary was so graced at the moment of her conception, similar to the way in which John the Baptist was graced in his mother's womb.
Does the fact that the same term is applied to Mary in Luke, and all Christians in Ephesians cause you a problem?
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