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To: Jean Chauvin
Perhaps that is because God intended for them to misunderstand...

So it is your contention that Jesus was speaking to the unconverted at that point? It is the only way your argument makes any sense.

347 posted on 12/04/2003 10:28:55 AM PST by FormerLib
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To: FormerLib
"So it is your contention that Jesus was speaking to the unconverted at that point? It is the only way your argument makes any sense."

No, Jesus is speaking to many today through those same words inspired by the Holy Spirit.

Jesus was speaking figuratively to the disciples and they understood such (they made the mistake of thinking literally/physically in John 6:32 as I have already pointed out.).

Yet, when those words are read by others today and in the past, some can easily misunderstand those words to denote a physical/material meaning as the Roman Catholic Church has so done.

Jean

350 posted on 12/04/2003 11:25:22 AM PST by Jean Chauvin (Sola Scriptura---Sola Fida---Sola Gracia---Sola Christus---Soli Deo Gloria)
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