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To: OrthodoxPresbyterian; editor-surveyor; jude24; Jerry_M
Arguement for Pauline authorship of Hebrews - the stylistic differences, the main reason for discounting its Pauline authoriship (despite dealing with Pauline topics), can be acounted for by assuming a composition by St. Paul in Aramaic on his own, followed by a very good translation into Greek for distribution in the west. In the main the Jews and Syrians did not speak Greek, and the Greeks did not speak Aramaic. Unlike his letters to the Greek speaking Churches, which he did not write himself, but instead dictated (Romans 16.22, 1 Cor. 16.21, 2 Thess. 3.17, etc.), this letter was written directly by the author.
393 posted on 11/28/2003 5:01:42 AM PST by Hermann the Cherusker
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To: Hermann the Cherusker; OrthodoxPresbyterian; jude24; Jerry_M
"can be acounted for by assuming a composition by St. Paul in Aramaic on his own, followed by a very good translation into Greek for distribution in the west"

Agree. In addition, there is the obvious fact that Paul was definately "persona non grata" in any place that was under the control of the Sanhedrin, thus would have done much to eliminate his identity from the text to protect the courrier.

There is really no legitimate controversy here.

407 posted on 11/28/2003 11:26:07 AM PST by editor-surveyor ( . Best policy RE: Environmentalists, - ZERO TOLERANCE !!)
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