I am saying that there is no moral difference between using methods to determine when the woman is infertile and many other forms of contraception. Clearly, there are forms of contraception which are not permitted due to an abortiofacient effect but that does not apply to ally of them.
I know that this is hard for some to accept as it will deprive certain people of one of their preferred methods of attacking Orthodox Christianity so I am not surprised that some will choose to die on the hill of "natural contraception" versus "artificial contraception."
Also, I am aware of any teaching of either church which demands that a married couple forgo conjugal relations once the female is no longer able to conceive. Are you suggesting that it is otherwise in the Roman Catholic Church?