There certainly is. I hope you are clear on the distinction of de congruo vs. de condigno.
Did you consider my point about the mud used to give sight to the blind man? The mud worked de congruo because it was made congruent, or made to correspond, to the purpose which Christ ordained for it.
Christ healed him de condigno from His own worth (dignus) with reference, congruence or correspondence to some outside power.
Because Mary corresponded exactly to the grace which her Son freely gave her, she is a model of Christian living - especially in the face of suffering - for all believers.
If the prayer of righteous man availeth much, then the prayers offered by Mary on behalf of the faithful must also so avail.
You said:
your euphemistic use of the phrase "scriptural inference" doesn't hide the fact that your explination leads us from what might almost pass as scriptural
I don't think I'm being euphemistic at all - I'm trying to read Scripture correctly, and I think there is a real Scriptural difficulty regarding the manner in which Mary could have already been full of grace before the Savior was born.
Do I realize that there are other Scriptural inferences which can be drawn from this difficulty which are antithetical to mine? Of course.
Do I realize the way that Mary is spoken of in the Catholic Church can be extremely florid and couched in obscure theological terms? Of course.
I'm not asking you to swallow Catholicism hook, line and sinker: I'm just asking that you acknowledge that I take Scripture seriously and that neither my Church nor my own conscience advises me to just jettison the Scriptures in favor of a neat, rounded theological construct.
Ofcourse, because the RCC has crafted a totally different definition of the word grace. Soothingdave described it to me in detail, I think it was him. Grace was merit that you earned based on works, like communion, rosary, works etc. You need a certain amount to be saved. It is also used up when you goof up. This is not the biblical definition of the word.