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To: unspun; general_re; The Westerner; RJCogburn; tpaine; exmarine; r9etb
No matter what system of morality and ethics you evolve, it's ultimately going to rest on premises that must be taken as axiomatic because they are fundamentally unprovable

Objectivism does not accept any assumption as an axiom. It is the only system that does not. All other systems do. That is one of the primary differences between objectivism and all other philosophies and ideologies.

First, there must be an observation and identification of some fact of reality or our knowledge that is discovered to be both primary and irreducible. What determines which such observations are axioms or only derivative concepts is the law of non-contradiction. If the assertion of some discovered aspect of existence or knowledge cannot be denied without being self-contradictory it is an axiom.

For example. The mystic "axiom," "there is a god." To say, "there is no god" is not self-contradictory, and therefore not an axiom. The logical "axiom" "existence exists" (or there is existence). To say "existence does not exist" (or there is no existence) is self-contradictory, thus, "existence exists" is an axiom.

Hank

299 posted on 05/01/2003 7:10:13 PM PDT by Hank Kerchief
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To: Hank Kerchief
Objectivism does not accept any assumption as an axiom.

Really? When did it abandon the non-initiation of force principle?

303 posted on 05/01/2003 7:16:24 PM PDT by Roscoe
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To: Hank Kerchief
Objectivism does not accept any assumption as an axiom.

No? How about "acting in one's self-interest is inherently rational"? Can you prove that, or do we just accept it to be true? After all, the denial, "acting in one's self-interest is not inherently rational" isn't self-contradictory, is it?

For example. The mystic "axiom," "there is a god." To say, "there is no god" is not self-contradictory, and therefore not an axiom. The logical "axiom" "existence exists" (or there is existence). To say "existence does not exist" (or there is no existence) is self-contradictory, thus, "existence exists" is an axiom.

No, actually it's not axiomatic - you just used the law of non-contradiction to logically prove that existence exists. Given that ~(P & ~P) is true, ~P being false logically implies that P is true. And if you can prove that something is true, there's no need to regard it as an axiom.

309 posted on 05/01/2003 7:35:21 PM PDT by general_re (Take care of the luxuries and the necessities will take care of themselves.)
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To: Hank Kerchief; general_re; The Westerner; RJCogburn; tpaine; exmarine; r9etb
For example. The mystic "axiom," "there is a god." To say, "there is no god" is not self-contradictory, and therefore not an axiom. The logical "axiom" "existence exists" (or there is existence). To say "existence does not exist" (or there is no existence) is self-contradictory, thus, "existence exists" is an axiom.

Hank

God told you His name, Hank: I AM THAT I AM

348 posted on 05/01/2003 9:43:08 PM PDT by unspun (It's not about you.)
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