Posted on 04/07/2003 9:26:14 AM PDT by Jael
HIV-Positive Teacher Charged With Having Sex With Student Posted: 11:50 a.m. EDT April 7, 2003
PATERSON, N.J. --
An HIV-positive teacher from a Roman Catholic elementary school is accused of sexually assaulting a former student over a two-month period, prosecutors said.
Raymond J. Welsh, 33, of Fair Lawn, was charged with sexual assault by a diseased person, aggravated sexual assault, sexual assault and child endangerment. He was released Friday on $200,000 bail.
Joseph Del Russo, chief assistant prosecutor for Passaic County, said state law requires anyone infected with HIV to notify sexual partners.
[since the child was in about the 6th grade when all this started, I hardly see how this homosexual was "having sex." Why can't these people call this what it is? Rape.]
Welsh has taught religion, music, computers and gym at St. Therese School in Paterson since the late 1990s.
NOW we're getting somewhere. Why are you quoting statistics on "pedophilia" then? According to your post #9, Freund's data, homosexuals are pedophiles in disproportionate numbers. That's false, the child-abuse experts say it's false, the position that it's false is recognized by many non-political, non-biased organizations.
"Oh, but wait", you say -- "that's because pedophile statistics ignore pederasts! Pederasts aren't included in the data! They should be, but they aren't! Wah!"
And the question remains: Why are you continuing to quote clinical studies of "pedophiles" when the very definition of "pedophile" ignores the age-range that 'proves' your position? That's your complaint, isn't it, that the clinical definition of "pedophile" isn't broad enough?
My position is proven by Freund AND Federal Crimes Statistics AND the Jenny Study AND, AND Freunds studies involved children up to age 12 which arguably include age specific prepubescent, pubescent and postpubescent children. Thats completely independent of my beef with the definition and how statistics are cataloged. Much like the article for this thread doesnt note the double pedo/homo pathology connection until the end.
But here AGAIN were debating on what the definition of is is. Its the same old song and dance and you're really becomming a bore.
Sometimes theres nothing left to do than bestow the BABI of the day award. But, of course, your posts span several days, so a BABI of the week is more in order. And since, its unlikely that youll be outdone by anyone for the remainder of the month, you Onelifetogive, are Backward Ass Bigoted Ignoramus for the month of April 2003.
Further, you are hereby entered as a contender for Backward Ass Bigoted Ignoramus for the year 2003. (Your chances look pretty good.)
No. It's not. The Jenny study specifically disproves your position; your use (and I include the sources you're plagarizing from) of Freund's data is wrong (Freund himself states: "... pedophilia has little in common with homosexuality or heterosexuality in males who prefer physically mature partners" -- hardly the position of a man whose data 'proves' otherwise); National Crime Statistics... well... you have yet to provide anything except some vague 'I think I remember...' claim.
Freunds studies involved children up to age 12 which arguably include age specific prepubescent, pubescent and postpubescent children. Thats completely independent of my beef with the definition and how statistics are cataloged.
Considering that Freund's studies don't prove your position, I'd consider finding a new source if I were you. And that's completely independent of the rather unscientific "Well, some children were 10, 11, 12 years old, and some of those children must have been in some stage of pubescence when they were molested, and, and, and..."
I asked Donna about your first statement as it appeared to condone pedophilia and she agreed that it appeared to.
We knew that you did not so the statement came as a bit of a suprise to both of us.
Take care my friend. (Donna says hi!!)
Hopefully I will get to shoot the squirrel gun below this weekend!! This is "my thing"!
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