OK. Let me re-state that for those who can't figure it out, does the Federal Constitution, and the Amendments made to it, apply restrictions to the actions of the States? If it does, then the prohibitions placed on the Federal government concerning our Rights applies to the States as well. If not, then any State could re-institute slavery.
Is that better? Or do I need to break it down in to even smaller words for you Roscoe? I know your comprehension is a little iffy at times.
Hey give him a break, his last post was thirteen words, a personal high water mark for him.
"The Second Amendment declares that it shall not be infringed, but this, as has been seen, means no more than that it shall not be infringed by Congress." -- US Supreme Court, U.S. v. Cruikshank, 92 U.S. 542 (1875), Presser v. State of Illinois, 116 U.S. 252 (1886)
Stanley deliberately violated a local regulation to provoke an arrest that would bring him publicity. He went to court with a defense that was a sure loser so that he could play martyr. Frankly, he didn't give a spit how much damage he was doing to real RTKBA efforts.