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To: reprobate_mind
The trash you've read is trash. Sorry, but that's all it is.

WHy would I care what Ignatius has to say?

Perhaps because Ignatius, having been ordained by Peter, Paul, and John, was in a position to know the authentic Gospel far better than that of the Gnostic nutcases who wrote the trash you prefer.

That's a nice way to address the first person to compile the gospels into a "New Testament," as Marcion did in 140 A.D.

Marcion was also an anti-Semite who rejected the entire Old Testament and the Pauline Epistles. I prefer Christ's choice of Paul over your choice of Marcion.

That would be a trick, since the Emperor Theodosius made heresy punishable by death in 380 A.D. and it's around that perios that heresy was effectively quashed.

False. Death as punishment for heresy was unknown until the Middle Ages. Nestorius was not put to death, nor was Sabellius, nor were any number of other 5th Century heretics.

As for heresy being "quashed," what do you suppose was going at at 2 Constantinople (AD 381), Ephesus (AD 431), Chalcedon (AD 451), and all of the other councils. I guess the Nestorians, Monophysites, Monothelites, and the various other 4th and 5th Century heresies just really didn't happen, huh?

I hope you find your way out of your gnostic New Age cult, because it's not the truth.

100 posted on 03/25/2002 11:28:04 AM PST by Campion
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^
102 posted on 03/25/2002 11:42:12 AM PST by Dumb_Ox
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To: Campion; DoughtyOne; all
More than a hundred posts and none of the bible literalists on this thread have chosen to take up the incest conundrum. Everything I read in the bible (Leviticus, Deuteronomy, Ezekiel Chronicles) says that incest is a bad, unholy, ungodly thing. So, can someone explain to me why it was alright for Eve to boink a son or Adam to boink a daughter etc, etc. And please, if your logic involves an assertion that it "obviously" had to be OK because God created a scenario where it had to have happened to allow humans to propagate please don't bother. Also, no "God works in mysterious ways" stuff either please. Is there any reasonable explanation for this? Does anyone have a reference to any intelligent discussion of this "problem"?

I must confess that the notion of not taking everything in the bible literally, seems to me to be a better excuse, than concocting a scenario where sin was temporarily not a sin, whenever a literalist requires an “out” when confronted with logical incongruity in the bible.

105 posted on 03/25/2002 12:04:43 PM PST by US admirer
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