Really? That was not the answer I was expecting. How, then, do you understand:
Then he said to them, "These are my words which I spoke to you, while I was still with you, that everything written about me in the law of Moses and the prophets and the psalms must be fulfilled." (Luke 24:44)and
For Christ, our paschal lamb, has been sacrificed. (1 Corinthians 5:7)
and
But when Christ had offered for all time a single sacrifice for sins, he sat down at the right hand of God,
then to wait until his enemies should be made a stool for his feet.
For by a single offering he has perfected for all time those who are sanctified. (Hebrews 10:12-14)
I've had these passages cited to me as evidence that Jesus was the perfect sacrifice acceptable to God to atone for all of our sins. You are the first Christian who has not claimed to me that in Jesus was fulfilled all of the Law.
Think not that I am come to destroy the law, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfil.
For verily I say unto you, Till heaven and earth pass, one jot or one tittle shall in no wise pass from the law, till all be fulfilled. (Matthew 5:17-18)
Seems to me to be saying that Jesus thought he was fulfilling the Law (by which I take to mean ALL the Law, including the sacrificial law). How do you understand this?
Yeshua told us in no uncertain terms.
Matthew 5:18 (ESV)
For truly, I say to you, until heaven and earth pass away, not an iota, not a dot, will pass from the Law until all is accomplished.
Matthew 5:17 (ESV)
"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them.
Interestingly, many Christians will go on to say that Messiah's fulfillment of the Law made the Law unnecessary, and so He abolished it. They do this because they do not understand that Yeshua was a Jew speaking to Jews. Yeshua was Torah observant, as were the Jewish leaders of His Talmudim.
In the idiom of the time, to abolish Scripture meant to incorrectly interpret it. To fulfill Scripture meant to interpret it correctly. Yeshua did precisely that. He reminded the other Pharisees (for the evidence is that Yeshua was a Pharisee) that the relationship of G-d to His people, and His people to Him, is a heart relationship from which behavior flows. We do not become the holy priesthood by following Torah, but by dedicating ourselves to G-d. It is natural that the dedication would cause Torah observance, for Torah is G-d's wisdom and instruction.
What does this mean for the sacrifice? I thought I put this into the previous post, but if it wasn't clear, Yeshua's sacrifice was the Reality of which all the sacrifices called for in Torah were but shadow. The bulls, rams, turtle-doves, etc, could never atone for all sin for all time. They could only atone for specific sins in the past. They were a foretaste of what G-d had in mind from the foundation of the world.
Did Yeshua abolish (in our modern understanding) or fulfill them? He did not abolish them and did much more than fulfill them. He fulfilled what they could never be.
Does that mean that Messianic Jews will have to perform the sacrifices if the Temple is ever rebuilt? I will defer a definitive answer to a Messianic Jew. However, I would believe not. Yeshua has shed all the blood that must be shed for any sin that has been comitted or will be comitted.
But not because He fulfilled Torah. He fulfilled something much more real.
I'm sure this didn't help much, but you did ask.
Shalom.