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To: Woodkirk
What did Jesus mean when he used the Greek word "tokos" ?

To my knowledge Jesus never used the word "tokos." Jesus most likely spoke Aramaic and the words which are used in the Gospels are merely Greek translations of the Hebraic words he spoke. Trust me on this one, admit that you didn't have full knowledge of what you were talking about and back out gracefully. You'll gain more respect and a better audience for relevant points you wish to make in the future. (I assume you did follow the link and yet chose to ignore it. Why you did so I have no idea.)

23,998 posted on 02/04/2002 1:39:04 PM PST by the808bass
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To: the808bass
You failed to answer my questions. Are you dancing for some reason? You made a claim -- back it up. Find a Strong's Concordance and look up the word. What word did Jesus use to mean "interest, usury" in Luke 19:23 and Matthew 25:27? Whether he spoke Aramaic at times or not -- you don't know. The only record of what he said is in the Greek of the Byzantine Text that the Greeks depended upon for centuries.

When in doubt you go to the videotape -- You say you trust the Word of God -- and you know what it means -- prove it from the only source that counts -- an absolute source

Did Jesus use the word "tokos" to mean "interest, usury" or not?. Did he ever use it anyother time to mean anything else? Answer the questions --- they are not hard. But if you don't know what you are talking about -- then sit down and quit taking up cyberspace.

24,006 posted on 02/04/2002 2:42:27 PM PST by Woodkirk
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To: the808bass
To my knowledge Jesus never used the word "tokos." Jesus most likely spoke Aramaic and the words which are used in the Gospels are merely Greek translations of the Hebraic words he spoke.

Be ready to have folks say that "unless you have proof that Jesus spoke it Aramaic, you can't make the claim that he did speak in Aramaic". It's coming.

24,008 posted on 02/04/2002 3:32:00 PM PST by Fury
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