I "saw" your facetiousness and "raised" you some more of mine. :-)
I understand what it means. And I understand it (the virginity thing) no longer applied after the birth of Jesus. What do you think it means?
Like I said, this passge points to the Virgin Birth. That's it. This is Steven's famous motto (Matt 1:25). It is believed by many that saying they had no relations "until" Jesus was born means that they had them afterward. This is your and Steven's reading.
We have shown before that there are instances in the Bible when the word "till" is used that do not imply that things changed after the "till" event happened. "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for you." Does this mean after the enemies are "footstooled" that he is to no longer sit at the right hand?
No. Of course not. So we can't say "till" always in the Bible means that things change afterward. So does "they didn't have relations till Jesus was born" mean they did afterward? You think so, I don't. Commenting on the future sex life of Mary and Joseph certainly wasn't the intent of the writer of this passage.
SD