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To: SoothingDave
If the question is: Is Jesus God? I would answer unequivocally YES. He is and always has been. But the question you ignore (that others here are hinting at) is:
Did Jesus use his own divinity (power) while here on earth or did he rely only on his humanity plus the same power of God through the Holy Spirit as he would give us? Philippians chapter 2 seems indicate that he "emptied himself" (didn't use) his own divine nature while here on earth on his most holy mission for us. Perhaps this was done to serve as an example for us?
21 posted on 10/09/2001 7:47:02 PM PDT by Iowegian
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To: Iowegian
But the question you ignore (that others here are hinting at) is:
Did Jesus use his own divinity (power) while here on earth or did he rely only on his humanity plus the same power of God through the Holy Spirit as he would give us?

Thank you Iowegian, I thought I was alone on this subject.

24 posted on 10/09/2001 7:59:16 PM PDT by JHavard
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To: Iowegian
If the question is: Is Jesus God? I would answer unequivocally YES. He is and always has been. But the question you ignore (that others here are hinting at) is: Did Jesus use his own divinity (power) while here on earth or did he rely only on his humanity plus the same power of God through the Holy Spirit as he would give us? Philippians chapter 2 seems indicate that he "emptied himself" (didn't use) his own divine nature while here on earth on his most holy mission for us. Perhaps this was done to serve as an example for us?

I wish I had said that.:-)

30 posted on 10/09/2001 8:25:00 PM PDT by JHavard
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To: Iowegian
Did Jesus use his own divinity (power) while here on earth or did he rely only on his humanity plus the same power of God through the Holy Spirit as he would give us? Philippians chapter 2 seems indicate that he "emptied himself" (didn't use) his own divine nature while here on earth on his most holy mission for us. Perhaps this was done to serve as an example for us?

Kenoticism (from the Greek word "kenosis" - used in Phillipians 2 for "poured out") is the belief that Jeus emptied himself of the form of God (morphe theou - v.6). The Second Person of the Trinity laid aside his distinctly divine attributes (omnipotence, omnipresence, etc.) and took on human qualities instead. Or, in other words, the incarnation was an exchange of part of the divine nature of Christ for human characteristics. His moral qualities, such as love and mercy, were maintained.

This is, in reality, in the area of Christology, is a parallel to the solution of modalists in the area of the Trinity. Jesus is not God and man simultaneously, bu successively. When it comes to love, He's God. When it comes to omnipotence, he's man. When lined up with the Chalcedonian formula, it would claim that Jesus God in the same respect, but not at the same time. Though this view is innovative and solves some difficulties, it does not account for the evidence that the writers of the Bible did not divide up Jesus in such a fashion. See 1 Tim. 3:16.

68 posted on 10/09/2001 10:04:02 PM PDT by the808bass
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To: Iowegian
If the question is: Is Jesus God? I would answer unequivocally YES. He is and always has been. But the question you ignore (that others here are hinting at) is: Did Jesus use his own divinity (power) while here on earth or did he rely only on his humanity plus the same power of God through the Holy Spirit as he would give us? Philippians chapter 2 seems indicate that he "emptied himself" (didn't use) his own divine nature while here on earth on his most holy mission for us. Perhaps this was done to serve as an example for us?

Thank you for your answer. And especially for stating well the follow-on issue of how Jesus used his Divinity on earth. If your question is really the point that Havoc and JHavard were hinting at, then I wish they could have hinted more strongly. And not hesitated to answer my question unequivocally.

SD

94 posted on 10/10/2001 6:49:27 AM PDT by SoothingDave
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