Where?
I see ample evidence preserved in the Passion story of Jesus saying "My God my God why have you abandoned me" in Aramaic. since it is Him citing a Psalm, why wouldn't He have used Hebrew then? Or why would a person writing in Greek preserve Jesus' Hebrew words in Aramaic?
You have a confusion about the person of Jesus. He had to learn things just like a regular human being. He did not posses infinite knowledge while on earth. He had to learn to tie his shoes (er, strap his sandals) and learn to read and write and talk and get weaned from the breast just like a normal human.
SD
Did He not debate the Rabbis at in Luke 2:40-50?
Paying particular attention to verse 40,42 and 47.
Tehillim (Psalm) 18:46 The LORD lives! Praise be to my Rock! Exalted be God my Saviour!
XeniaSt
If one were expecting to talk also to a Hebrew Crowd, one would quite readily translate over to Hebrew as an aside. Much the same way Kennedy talked to Americans and Germans and said "Ich bin ein Berliner" (I am a Berliner). You're being incredulous at the obvious. I know you could think of these things readily enough; but, they don't help your argument..
But since you believe that Scripture doesn't necessarily have primacy over "Tradition" and church authorities you would hold this opinion no matter what. So why do you care at all what it says? Unless you only want to use it as a club to beat those who disagree (when it suits your purposes). You RC's have no idea how your attacks on the Bible undermine God's word to non-christians. You don't see it that way, but it does.