I am not an 88-year-old Federal Judge, but since the Bill of Rights were ratified after the Constitution itself, how can a part of the original Constitution ‘override’ an amendment to the document. The Amendments by definition override the original, not the other way round.
The Articles of the Constitution define what the federal government consists of and what it can do (and those powers are few and limited). While the Bill of Rights states in no uncertain terms what the federal government cannot do.
Ah, but you were not an affirmative action choice on the courts.