God uses plain words. Well Sure. Yet what about Billy Shakespeare? He did write one of the Psalms. When God was busy writing most all of the rest of the King James Bible, did any one tell God that King James was a same sex person? Now of course God knows everything, so I guess he just went along with the fact that King James was getting it done with guys instead of with girls.
Incorrect.
When God was busy writing most all of the rest of the King James Bible, did any one tell God that King James was a same sex person?
Could you repeat that in English?
Now of course God knows everything, so I guess he just went along with the fact that King James was getting it done with guys instead of with girls.
Ok, you are historically illiterate as well as being book illiterate.
King James did not write or translate to the King James version. I believe King James the 5th authorized (paid for) 20 or so linguists to make the translation.
You fool. The translation was done during King James times by academics schooled in the ancient languages. Very gifted and devout group
Did you personally know James? Didn't think so.
Why do you make such assertions? The first is, as an assertion, is the type of wanton wishful accusations you are likely to find on liberal anti-theist sites, and is a real stretch.
'Shakspeare', which divides into four and six letters, thus '46'. The 46th word from the beginning of Psalm 46 is "shake" and the 46th word from the end (omitting the liturgical mark "Selah") is "spear" ("speare" in the original spelling). - https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Psalm_46
Bible code anyone?
A similar version (being refuted): if you count down 46 words from the top (not counting the title) you read the word “shake,” then, if you omit the word “selah” and count 46 words from the bottom you find the word “spear.” Voilà! Shakespeare must have tinkered with the text and subtly added his signature. How else could one account for all of these 46s to work out so well? To top it all off, William Shakespeare is an anagram of “Here was I, like a psalm.” (Did Shakespeare Slip His Name in Psalm 46? by Kyle Butt, M.Div.)
The second of your assertions is an old accusation and which is debated, but it is irrelevant to the overall integrity of the KJV. Which only condemns sodomy.