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To: 2ndDivisionVet

“Congress shall make no law...” is an ABSOLUTE prohibition.

So is “...shall not be infringed.”

I’d bet big money that the professor sees the “rights” to abortion, and to vote, and criminalize discrimination, as absolute rights...even though two of those are not enumerated in the Constitution, and voting was viewed by the authors of the Constitution as a privilege that could be granted or denied as the legislature saw fit.


6 posted on 09/08/2019 3:13:40 AM PDT by sourcery (Non Aquiesco: "I do not consent" (Latin))
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To: sourcery

ask him about birthright citizenship for illegal aliens


26 posted on 09/08/2019 4:58:06 AM PDT by a fool in paradise (Denounce DUAC - The Democrats Un-American Activists Committee)
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To: sourcery

1st amendment applies specifically to Congress. In an ideal world, the states (rather than the courts) would get to list the exceptions (for years it was this very way).

2nd amendment is “right of the people” so that looks absolute.


41 posted on 09/08/2019 5:50:36 AM PDT by scrabblehack
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