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To: sourcery

1st amendment applies specifically to Congress. In an ideal world, the states (rather than the courts) would get to list the exceptions (for years it was this very way).

2nd amendment is “right of the people” so that looks absolute.


41 posted on 09/08/2019 5:50:36 AM PDT by scrabblehack
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To: scrabblehack

Yes, as written, it applies specifically to Congress. It’s nevertheless an absolute prohibition against Congress, whether or not the 14th Amendment extended the prohibition to the several States.


76 posted on 09/08/2019 12:31:32 PM PDT by sourcery (Non Aquiesco: "I do not consent" (Latin))
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