Let me ask you a question.
A man gets married and lives with a woman for decades functioning like a heterosexual man. Then he hits 60 or so, and is suddenly a homosexual.
To hear a homosexual address the issue, he’ll tell you he just doesn’t function as a heterosexual. There’s no attraction between him and a woman.
So a guy has relations with a woman, has children, then later on turns homosexual.
If that can happen, why can’t it work in reverse.
Don’t tell me the guy was always a homosexual.
Homosexuals tell us they aren’t attracted to the opposite sex. This means they can’t function as a male with a woman.
That’s their claim, not mine.
How do you answer this dilemma?
‘Don’t tell me the guy was always a homosexual.’
“He told his wife he was gay before they married...”