Posted on 09/14/2018 7:00:23 AM PDT by CondoleezzaProtege
The Associated Press news agency on Wednesday acceded to a Russian request to delete the term "former ally" from an article mentioning the relationship between the Soviet Union and Nazi Germany during World War II.
The article, which was published at the beginning of the month in media outlets worldwide, including Haaretz, was about a Ukrainian city commemorating the 75th anniversary of the destruction of its Jewish community. It included the claim that "in June 1941 Germany attacked the Soviet Union, its former ally."
On Wednesday, ten days after the article was published, AP amended the text. The news agency explained that the Ribbentrop-Molotov Pact, signed by Moscow and Berlin on the eve of World War II, did not make Germany and the Soviet Union allies. The agreement was a non-aggression pact that also included the delineation of spheres of interest between the two countries in eastern Europe, and it paved the way for the German invasion of Poland that triggered the beginning of the war. It was violated less than two years later, when Germany invaded the Soviet Union in June 1941.
"In 1939, despite sharp ideological differences, the two powers entered into a non-aggression pact that paved the way for them to carve up Poland and for the Soviet Union to take the Baltic states of Lithuania, Estonia and Latvia," AP wrote. "That pact was never formally recognized as an alliance, and in 1941 Germany attacked the Soviet Union. The Soviet Union, in coalition with allies including Britain, the United States and other nations, fought for four years to defeat the Nazis."
The Russian embassy in Israel also requested that Haaretz amend the article in line with AP.
(Excerpt) Read more at haaretz.com ...
Poland would have been not that pathetic, if the scum sucking imperialist Britons and French hadn’t signed the Munich Agreement with Nazi Germany.
In Germany they had the National Socialist party called NAZI for short. In the US we have the Democrat socialists party called Dazis for short.
” the USSR 1920s Ukrainian Holodorm inspired Hitler s Final Solution Holocaust atrocities.”
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Or Hitler was inspired by the genocide of native indians that American army carried out during America-indian wars.....
We had better not make baseless allegations.
Its historically truthful posts like this one and knowledgeable comments that make FR the Lifelong Learner U it is.
Well worth repeating!!!
Stalin also provided Hitler with advisers to help create Concentration camps and crematoriums.
Murderous USSR and Nazis share collectivist socialist authoritarian roots.
USSR primarily leveraged class hatred, Nazis primarily leveraged ethnic hatred.
Thanks for that succinct definition/comparison. You’re right, I learn more here by accident than anywhere else on purpose.
By the way, I think I stayed in the Ukrainian Holodorm when I was an intern on the USS Enterprise.
Lol. Pilsudski, russophobe helped him overcome the suspicion of the Germans.
Why are you telling me things I already knew? What does this have to do with the Molotov-Ribbentropp Pact (aside from the fact that fighting a two-front war is always a recipe for disaster)?
Regards,
The Hitler-Stalin Pact is an alternate name for the Rippentrop-Molotov Pact. I replied to you because your post seemed to be the most related to my point—I didn’t mean to imply you didn’t know your history. It was just that the impact of the Rippentrop-Molotov Pact was even worse than the previous posts had pointed out. Hitler foolishly got himself into a two-front war later but in 1939 he might have hesitated to start the war if he had expected a repeat of what happened in 1914. Stalin made it all possible.
By pointing out that not only Poland but also other countries had likewise concluded (mostly harmless) treaties with Nazi Germany - thus, that merely having a treaty with Nazi Germany was not, in itself, evil, and that these other treaties should not be mentioned in the same thread with the Molotov-Ribbentropp Pact, such mention suggesting as it does some sort of equivalency - I was only trying to respond to the (completely irrelevant, distracting) mention of Poland's 1934 treaty with Nazi Germany.
I would, of course, not compare those other harmless treaties (incl. the 1934 Polish treaty) with the Munich Agreement of 1938. Why would I? What did I write indicating that I would be so foolish? You are roiling the water.
AGAIN, I was taking issue with the FReeper's mentioning the 1934 Polish treaty, to which your retort ("How about the Munich Agreement?") is irrelevant.
Regards,
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