Skip to comments.Spain Didn’t Commit Any Genocide in America: What It Did Was to End One
Posted on 10/13/2017 12:20:35 PM PDT by NKP_Vet
....the historical reality is far from the famous black legend created by British and Dutch and today promoted by far-leftists. The historical facts make clear that it is not possible to speak, even remotely, of a Spanish genocide in America, and when I say genocide I refer to the definition of the same made by the Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court in its Article 6:
For the purpose of this Statute, genocide means any of the following acts committed with intent to destroy, in whole or in part, a national, ethnical, racial or religious group, as such: (a) Killing members of the group; (b) Causing serious bodily or mental harm to members of the group; (c) Deliberately inflicting on the group conditions of life calculated to bring about its physical destruction in whole or in part; (d) Imposing measures intended to prevent births within the group; (e) Forcibly transferring children of the group to another group.
Spanish laws protecting indigenous people
The far-left today alleges that Spain set out to annihilate the Indians, an absurd claim. Remember that in 1512, when the first news of mistreatment of the Indians, King Fernando II signed the Laws of Burgos that considered Indians free men and the obligation to pay them a fair wage for their work. In 1542 the Emperor Carlos V dictated the New Laws, which expressly prohibited the submission of Indians to slavery and forced labor. To this we must add that between the Spanish population and the Indians there was a great miscegenation, even among the nobles. On the contrary, in British North America, the miscegenation between colonists and Indians was almost non-existent, and the Indians were robbed of their lands and confined to reservations, which did not occur in Spanish America.
(Excerpt) Read more at outono.net ...
They did sow the seeds for the corruption that is endemic in all of Latin America.
Bribery is expected.
miscegenation | - noun
the interbreeding of people considered to be of different racial types.
How many indians or native people are in Argentina?
I thought everybody in Argentina was from Italy or Germany.
The destruction of the Mayan codices was unforgivable, though. It was the triumph of ignorance over history.
There is a lot of good information in the article, but when I read about the superior behavior of the Spaniards vs British North America, I have to ask: Where did it lead? Why is British North America prosperous while the rest of the Americas are so depressed?
If as Winston Churchill once said, “History is written by the victors.”, then we are in trouble. The left through the press and Hollywood has been writing and distorting the history accepted as truth by most since the beginning of the cold war.
” Why is British North America prosperous while the rest of the Americas are so depressed?”
My guess is because British common law is a lot better than Napoleonic law. Countries that were once British colonies have common law and respect private property rights. Former Spanish and French colonies have Napoleonic law..guilty until proven innocent.
I believe there is a theory that between the Vikings visit and the Pilgrims arriving, the north american continent was devastated by a plague that may have wiped out as much as 90% of the indigenous population. There are records from European visitors that describe city like areas with cultivated parks, etc.
It may explain why the Viking and earlier records describe a formidable force to contend with, while by the time the Pilgrims got here, the Indians were a pushover.
And if that is actually true, it’s possible that the Vikings brought that plague with them. Just a thought.
Our North American ancestors did not see themselves as stealing land that they cleared and planted at great cost, using their superior tools, just because some Indian hunting parties occasionally passed through it. If you want a good example of theft, consider what happened when the Normans conquered England in 1066 and made serfs out of the entire indigenous population.
So Cortes and Pizarro who wiped out the Aztecs and Incas hailed from England. Who knew?!
IQ. IQ precedes culture.
we had an Argentinian student stay with us for a semester or two a few years ago. She said that there are reservations for indigenous people in the South of the country, which is the remote part. similar to America.
Spain did not have Napoleonic-style law codes at the time its colonies (most of them) revolted. Spain was fighting for its life in the Napoleonic wars, when the wave of revolutions began in earnest in Spanish America, 1810-1820. This wave was prompted by the weakness of the home government, which had lost much of the power to maintain its rule through its many troubles in the European wars.
Spanish law at the time was a mishmash of medieval law (Siete Partidas) and Bourbon-era reforms.
The last official edition of the Siete Partidas was issued in 1818.
The mass killing was by microbes, and the propagation did not depend on infected blankets or similar, just normal human-human transmission.
They hailed from Estremadura.
Someplace to be from, not in.
America has the greatest climate, resources and the immigrants are hard-scrabble escapees from oppresive countries.
The immigrants to Mexico and Southwere the elite of their home countries coming to establish same in Mexico and South.
America has English common law. The rest have euroweenie law.
That is why we flourish.e
True. But this article is a straw man, defending Spaniards against something they can't legitimately be accused of doing and ignoring what they did do. History is more a matter of details, than big picture us vs. them polemics.
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