I think you’re confusing the requirement that people had to own property before they could vote with owning property giving you the right to vote even if you don’t reside in the district.
Show me some historical evidence that non-resident property owners once had the right to vote...anywhere.
And, no, I would not be arguing your position.
Not confusing anything. IN MY OPINION if you own property you get to vote, otherwise it is taxation without representation. From a common good point of view people who own property somewhere you have a vested interest. Your opinion is different. So what?