The article references changing from a majority to a plurality. The GOP has had a majority rule since its founding, while Democrats had a TWO-THIRDS rule for a hundred years.
The two-thirds rule was the reason the Democrats took over 100 votes in 1924.
Obfuscation. WAS the 8 state rule in existence before 2012 or not? I don’t care about other diversions of interpretation. The claim “has not changed for 100 years” was made.