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To: dartuser
Why would a voter who wants to cast a vote for a legal candidate not have standing?

To have standing, you have to be able to articulate an injury that you will suffer that is distinct from a generalized claim of injury to the public at large. In other words, you have to be able to show how you are injured in a way that is different from the general public.

33 posted on 02/12/2016 11:34:04 AM PST by CA Conservative (Texan by birth, Californian by circumstance)
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To: CA Conservative
To have standing, you have to be able to articulate an injury that you will suffer that is distinct from a generalized claim of injury to the public at large. In other words, you have to be able to show how you are injured in a way that is different from the general public.

Wouldn't that then imply that no individual has standing?

The court should take the case whether there is standing or not ... we need to know legally if this is really an issue. For every lawyer out there saying its not an issue, there is another one that says he is not eligible. The court must rule here.

66 posted on 02/12/2016 11:48:47 AM PST by dartuser
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To: CA Conservative

Wouldn’t voters have the injury of possibly having the Republican nominee being ineligible? Thus, all those voters are being denied our right to vote.


109 posted on 02/12/2016 12:03:49 PM PST by grania
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