To: Helicondelta
Most of the Midwest was just given to the American people. It was settled by homesteaders. It is now land in the various States. Why don’t they do that with the west? Why has the Federal government continued to control most of the land west of the Rockies?
42 posted on
01/23/2016 7:19:57 AM PST by
P-Marlowe
(Freepers. The enemy is on the left, not the right!)
To: P-Marlowe
Most of the Midwest was just given to the American people. It was settled by homesteaders. It is now land in the various States. Why don't they do that with the west? Why has the Federal government continued to control most of the land west of the Rockies?Some history: In the Midwest, the land was immediately useful for farming, so there was an immediate demand for private ownership. In the arid West, there was no obvious (at the time) use for these lands, so the fed just kept them. They did not forsee the current uses that are now creating demands for this land (recreation, hunting, oil & gas, irrigated agriculture, etc.)
51 posted on
01/23/2016 7:26:55 AM PST by
snarkpup
("I want you for Secretary of Inflation." - Zippy the Pinhead)
To: P-Marlowe
139 posted on
01/23/2016 9:12:45 AM PST by
MarMema
To: P-Marlowe
Read excellent background on why the Feds still control most of the west here. This apparently was a big issue during the 1800s which stalled out. It should be revisited. If the states can manage swamps in Florida and mountains in Appalachia they can managed deserts and mountains in the West. The true challenge is to sell them off and apply the proceeds to the pay down the national debt rather than pay for additional social spending. We may want to fix the latter dynamic before fixing the former.
208 posted on
01/23/2016 2:38:13 PM PST by
JohnBovenmyer
(Obama been Liberal. Hope Changed)
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