While much of what you said is true, the sins you mention are not the sins of polygamy. In fact, Gods law does not prohibit polygamy and goes even further by providing rules / laws for the treatment of wives (plural). As one example, The Law stated that a man could take another wife as long as he still provided for his first wife (Exo.21:10)
Further, In 2 Samuel 12:7-8, God gave David multiple wives as a blessing.
And Nathan said to David, Thou art the man. Thus saith the Lord God of Israel, I anointed thee king over Israel, and I delivered thee out of the hand of Saul;
8 And I gave thee thy master’s house, and thy master’s wives into thy bosom, and gave thee the house of Israel and of Judah; and if that had been too little, I would moreover have given unto thee such and such things.
9 Wherefore hast thou despised the commandment of the Lord, to do evil in his sight? thou hast killed Uriah the Hittite with the sword, and hast taken his wife to be thy wife, and hast slain him with the sword of the children of Ammon.
This is during King David’s rebuke for killing Uriah and it goes directly to refute your assertion that God never condoned polygamy.
My assertion is that there is far more support in the Bible FOR polygamy than there is for homosexuality which was a sin that called for stoning as punishment.
There is NO 'support' for polygamy in the Bible.
The bible merely RECORDS the fact that it occurred.
Please review 2 Samuel again, TaxControl. The "wives" referenced in 2 Sam. 12:7 are the same "wives" referenced 4 verses later in 2 Sam. 12:11...when Nathan the prophet prophesies that they will "lie" with another.
Tell us, TaxControl...in your wrestling Scriptural passages out of context...when did that prophesy take place?
In Paul Harvey-style, here is “the rest of the story.â€
The prophesy of Nathan came to be when these women slept openly with Absalom...per 2 Sam. 16:22.
Pray tell, TaxControl: What does 2 Sam. 16:22 call these women? ("Concubines"). (Yup...Aha...say it again...Concubines).
The Hebrew word for "wives" was also the Same exact word used for "women" in these passages...and we know this same word was used for the "concubine" in Judges 19, ...concubine given by his owner to sleep with a lot of men. (Btw, this same Hebrew word was even used for animal mates boarding the ark in Gen. 7...and we know these animals didn't have "wives"…unless, TaxControl, you think animals have wives???).
2 Sam. 16:21-22 shows us they weren't sexually loyal to David, and may not have been sexually active with him at all...as you'll note, there was no response from David to Absalom saying, "How dare are you sleeping openly with my 'wives'!"
The fact is, in that culture...when a king took over a kingdom, he inherited the properties...and those who came with it…in this case, concubines.