Posted on 01/06/2016 3:40:06 PM PST by gwgn02
Trump said Cruz âhas had a double passport.â
Trump didnât provide and we didnât find evidence that Cruz, who relinquished his dual citizenship in 2014, ever carried passports for the U.S. and Canadaânor, Cruzâs camp advises, did he ever apply for a Canada passport.
We rate the claim False.
There you go. Trump lies again to disparage Cruz.
You were born a citizen under US jurisdiction to a citizen father and an alien mother. To my understanding, after having spent a fair amount of time researching back in 2008-09, if no foreign jurisdiction has a legitimate legal claim upon you due to the circumstance of your birth, then you are a natural born citizen. Being a citizen of another nation due to their particular laws regarding citizenship at birth would create a problem. Whether or not that problem could be resolved as far as eligibility to the Presidency is an open question.
FWIW, the residency requirement pertains to the citizen parent. Some past US laws pertaining to citizenship would strip citizenship from the child, if the child didn't meet residency requirements. That statutory "citizenship stripping" power (upheld in Rogers) does not play for a birth abroad in 1970. Cruz could have lived in Canada his whole life without losing his US citizenship.
The 1790 act demonstrates the original intent of the Framers with respect to the term "natural born citizen". They thought it meant what normal people today think it means: citizen by birth. They had no need to cite obscure Swiss legal experts.
The fact that later laws omit the term "natural born" is irrelevant. The omission of the phrase is understandable, given that "natural born" only pertains to two jobs in the United States.
These same people by and large removed the term natural born citizen from the description and yet retained the term natural born citizen in the Constitution. Please explain why they did this. If, as you feel, they were expressing their original intent as to the meaning of natural born citizenship in 1790, what were they expressing by removing the term in 1795? Isn’t this the crux of the issue? You seem perfectly willing to give them credit for their intent in 1790 yet act like there was no intent in 1795.
They didn’t think the issue was all that important. “Natural born” was safely in the Constitution. Everyone knew what it meant. It only applied to presidential elections, not normal business. They obviously thought it was properly defined, and there was no need to keep using the term in mundane immigration legislation.
In any case, what matters is what they thought it meant when they drafted the Constitution. Later doesn’t count. Later needs two third of the Congress and three fourths of the state legislatures.
OK, My question is this. Do you think that the combination of what they presented within their use and then removal of the term natural born citizen in the Acts of 1790 and 1795 in describing the same set of conditions gives us a clue as to whether or not location of birth was relevant to the definition? It certainly appears this way to me.
Their failure to use NBC in 1795 is indicative of nothing, except perhaps that they just didn't think it was all that important. After all, it was already safely in the Constitution, and if that Austrian prince Ferdinand Maximilian had tried to run for President (instead of Emperor of Mexico), well, it just wouldn't have been legal!
Even if Congress had meant to redefine the meaning of NBC in 1795, they lacked the power. They would have needed two thirds of their members and three quarters of the states.
Congress certainly has the power to change Acts of Congress. It could very well have been that they revised the Act of 1790 because the description they had placed in it did not match what their original intent was and wanted to remove/correct their mistake. They may have come to the conclusion that Congress did not have the authority to re-define the term natural born citizen without an amendment process and thus removed it from the Act.
My point is that you cannot look at just the 1790 Act for guidance on this issue. Both Acts and the change made in reference to the term natural born citizen to just citizen together tell us something very important.
It's convincing evidence of what they thought it meant, and, therefore, how the Constitution should be interpreted. It shoots down de Vattel, etc. SCOTUS frequently engages in such lines of reasoning.
The fact that the 1795 act does not use the term NBC does not mean they were contradicting the 1790 act with respect to NBC. They could easily have written "citizen, but shall not be deemed to be natural born." But they did not. And, even if they had, they don't get to change their mind about the meaning of the Constitution without going through the amendment process.
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