Germany, Poland and Russia had established communities ....before WWII as well. That did not mean that they were “friends” with the Jews, it just means they overlooked them for awhile.
Do not ascribe good intentions when they are not warranted.
Germany had Jews from at least the 6th century. There were riots in the middle ages, but quietened down from the 17th century to the extent that German became the language of the Jewish people and was even proposed as the official language of the new state of Israel, but thankfully replaced with Yiddish.
There were Jews who fought in the Prussian armies and in the Imperial German army -- the officer who awarded Hitler with his Iron Cross was a Jew
The backlash against Jews arose from the false linking of Jews to Communism in the mind of the Nazis
In Poland, Jews lived in peace from the 10th century -- in a tolerant society. There were no riots or pogroms against Jews before the partitions of Poland at the end of the 18th century. In fact in 1791 before Poland disappeared from the map (for 130 years), 60% of all Jews in the world lived in Poland and were loyal subjects of this multi-ethnic, multi-religious state. There were pogroms in the 19th century in the eastern parts of what had in the 18th century been the Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth, but that was Tsarist and not Polish (read the next piece)
Russia -- Russia had next to no Jews and hence no pogroms etc. before the above mentioned tearing apart of the Polish-Lithuanian commonwealth (Rzeczpospolita) -- with this, Tsarist Russia got the majority of the dead state's carcass -- and in that land (what is now Belarus, Lithuania, Western Ukraine and central and eastern Poland), they inherited a huge number of Jews. The Tsars didn't know what to do with these people, just like they didn't know what to do with Poles -- both ethnic groups had grown in a sense of freedom and relative democracy, not the autocracy that the Russian peoples expected from their rulers. Pogroms were a way to keep people in check. To be fair, the Tsars also slaughtered Russians, Ugric peoples, Turkic peoples, Poles etc. -- and this is also what the Soviets did, but to a far, far greater extent
The initial Soviet/Bolshevik revolution had some Jewish intellectuals in high places like Trotsky -- definitely NOT the majority. Trotsky was brilliant and a great strategist and if he had not lost to Stalin, we would have had the Soviet Union in 1920 stretching right from the UK to China (including both). This would have been bloodthirsty and evil (communism in any flavour is evil), but 10 million would have been killed instead of Stalin's killing of 40 million Soviet citizens. But Trotsky lost to Stalin and Stalin and his inner circle started to demonize Trotksy, then Trotsky's associates etc. and killed everyone (Stalin was a greater evil than Hitler -- but that's like comparing beelzebub to mephistopheles).
The communist attacks against Jews started in the 60s to distract the population (it's so easy to scapegoat Jews -- they're smart, enterprising people and will rise to the top in any society)
Anyway, to your point, if you had read any history, you would not club together those three countries in such a broad space of time without thinking a little bit