Is this really the case? Was there no approval/confirmation number from NICS to the dealer?
Further, is there any real proof that if this is the case it was because of an arrest without conviction?
From what I heard, he admitted to prior drug USE....I do not know if this is true or not.
My main point of contention is that there is one thing you can always count on a Democrat to do - lie.
Well, apparently just an accusation of “domestic abuse/violence” is enough to get someone on the “DO NOT SELL TO” list in a lot of places. No conviction required. How does that friggin’ work? Not an issue at my house because we’ve learned the art of compromise. She tells me what she wants and I compromise by agreeing. Simple. :>}
Even so, a person must be under indictment for a felony to be prohibited from receiving a firearm via a 4473; not sure if that was the case.
Third, mere possession of drugs, whether admitted to or determined by a conviction, is not enough to make one "an unlawful user of, or addicted to" a drug. When I researched the topic a few years ago, that term had no established legal meaning.
This is the FBI/BATFE looking to circumvent due process by expanding the disqualifiers and making the background che ck more onerous than allowed by law.