From the book The Neanderthals by Friedemann Schrenk and Stephanie Mu"ller (2005, English trans. 2009), the Homo sapiens of Africa are descended from Homo heidelbergensis (800,000 B.C. on), a late form of Homo erectus. In Europe Homo heidelbergensis developed into Homo neanderthalensis (or Homo sapiens neanderthalensis).
Yes, I still agree.
But the article clearly indicates that the Homo Sapien “Adam” was himself a Homo Sapien.
My question - how can the Homo Sapien “Adam” predate the earliest Homo Sapien fossils by hundreds of thousands years?