Yes, I still agree.
But the article clearly indicates that the Homo Sapien “Adam” was himself a Homo Sapien.
My question - how can the Homo Sapien “Adam” predate the earliest Homo Sapien fossils by hundreds of thousands years?
Only a very tiny fraction of prehistoric animals or people have fossil remains that still exist, and only a tiny proportion of existing fossils are discovered...so it’s understandable that there could be significant gaps in the evidence that has come to light.