He must countersue and drive that false accusation into the ground.
I would not accept such a lie, but then, I can’t say I’ve ever lost control of myself.
She wouldn’t have semen or pictures of merit with me. I would crush her.
What if the sex actually transpired but between two parties equally inebriated? Why does it constitute rape on the part of the male but victimhood on the part of the female, even if it was mutually consensual? Why is the male adjudged fully competent (and hence, fully liable) while the female is held blameless due to her diminished capacity?